Hi all. Please tell me if this logic is flawed. Bokeh must be produced by the outer (edge) portions of the glass (I realize it is partially the blades, but the light that contributes to bokeh must pass primarily from the outer glass portions). Thats why when you stop down, and you use more of the center portions of the glass, bokeh decreases. If this is true, then consider the following. 1) Suppose you are shooting at f/1.8 on an FX lens. Will bokeh be different on an FX sensor versus a DX sensor? My thought is that it would not, at least for the portion of the image that both sensors have in common. Of course, the FX sensor will have a larger DOF, and that would change, but everything else should be equivalent. 2) Now suppose you hold sensor size constant (lets say DX cropped sensor). Will there be differences in the bokeh for a FX lens and DX lens of equivalent focal length? My thought is that it WOULD differ. Using an FX lens on a DX sensor would force you to use more of the central portions of the glass (decreasing bokeh) whereas the DX lens would be sized such that more of the glass edges do contribute. Thoughts?