thunderkyss
TPF Noob!
- Joined
- Sep 23, 2010
- Messages
- 172
- Reaction score
- 11
- Location
- Texas
- Can others edit my Photos
- Photos OK to edit
If I set the 105mm lens' aperture to, lets say 10mm diameter, I would have an f-number of roughly f10.5. But if I set the 28mm to the same 10mm diameter, it would be set to f2.8! To get f10.5 on a 28mm lens, the aperture would need a diameter of 2.67 mm.
So even though the areas created by the aperture blades in lenses of different focal lengths are different optically they create the same f-number . And ultimately the same exposure! Thats why f-numbers are used instead of the areas created by the aperture blades .. it makes it just that much easier for us to work with. Otherwise, converting aperture areas from one lens to create an identical exposure in another lens would REALLY give you a headache!
So what the manufacturers do when they put seemingly archaic numbers like 2.8, 5.6 and 11 on the lenses is really just taking the math out of the equation for us! So f8 on one lens gives us the same exposure aperture on any other lens! Whether it's a $50 point-and-shoot, a vintage 8x10 view camera or a 5-digit Hassy dream setup.... f8 is f8.
So a diameter of 2.67mm on a 28 millimeter lens lets in just as much light as a 10mm diameter on a 105mm lens?
How is that possible?